[Perodicticus potto]

Hey everyone,

Earlier this year I became a British citizen. Since then I've voted in one EU election, and intend to keep voting in UK and European elections. I've been told that as long as I do this, I can't also vote in American elections. However, I haven't been able to find a source for this belief, and was wondering whether it's true or just a myth (and how the authorities would even be able to tell). Does anyone know?

Thanks a lot for your help.

[Norri]

I've never heard of this and doubt very much if it is true.
As a citizen you are entitled to your vote, but I don't have any evidence to back up my opinion.

[JoannaV]

Total myth I think. In fact it appears that both Britain and America quite like their expats to vote, and don't say anything about "but only if you don't vote in the country you now live!!".

I did find this on some website:
"Note that US law used to mandate loss of US citizenship for voting in a foreign election. However, this provision was struck down by the Supreme Court in Afroyim v. Rusk and was repealed by Congress in 1978."
Maybe that kind of thing is the origin of this myth.

[Perodicticus potto]

Originally Posted by JoannaV

I did find this on some website:
"Note that US law used to mandate loss of US citizenship for voting in a foreign election. However, this provision was struck down by the Supreme Court in Afroyim v. Rusk and was repealed by Congress in 1978."
Maybe that kind of thing is the origin of this myth.

I bet that's it exactly. Thanks very much, guys!